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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update 認定 8020 試験問題 (Q51-Q56):
質問 # 51
The Internal Loss Multiplier (ILM) is part of the Basel III Standardized Approach. Which of these definitions best descibes it?
- A. It is a non-financial factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
- B. t is a scaling factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
- C. It is uniform, and is used for indicating consistent incidents on an average return basis.
- D. It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
正解:B
解説:
The Internal Loss Multiplier (ILM) is a key component of the Basel III Standardized Approach for Operational Risk. It is designed to adjust capital requirements based on a bank's historical loss experience.
Definition of ILM
ILM is a scaling factor that adjusts the operational risk capital requirement based on a bank's internal loss history.
It is derived using a formula that incorporates historical operational risk losses relative to a bank's revenue.
Why ILM Exists in Basel III
Basel III replaced the Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) with a Standardized Approach that includes ILM to ensure that banks with high historical losses hold more capital for operational risk.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
Incorrect - ILM is not a general financial statement proxy; it specifically adjusts capital based on past operational losses.
B . It is a non-financial factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
Incorrect - ILM is financial in nature because it directly influences capital requirements.
D . It is uniform, and is used for indicating consistent incidents on an average return basis.
Incorrect - ILM is not uniform; it is bank-specific and varies based on loss history.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Standards
Basel III Standardized Approach for Operational Risk
質問 # 52
Ideally, which of the following should be completed as part of the risk assessments of service providers?
- A. An assessment of a third party should include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
- B. A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
- C. An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
- D. Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
正解:A
解説:
Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)
PRMIA highlights the importance of conducting thorough due diligence on third-party vendors and service providers.
This includes evaluating compliance programs, risk management frameworks, financial stability, strategic objectives, and operational history.
Key Areas of Third-Party Risk Assessment
Compliance and Risk Infrastructure → Ensures that the provider meets regulatory and security requirements.
Financial Health → Determines whether the provider has the financial stability to support long-term service delivery.
Business Strategy → Helps assess alignment with the organization's risk appetite and goals.
Operating History → Evaluates experience and reliability in delivering services.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy, and operating history.
Incorrect - Ignoring these critical factors increases the risk of working with an unreliable vendor.
C . Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
Incorrect - Onsite visits are highly valuable as they provide first-hand insights into operational controls. PRMIA encourages risk managers to conduct site visits.
D . A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
Incorrect - Employee salaries are not a primary risk factor in vendor assessments. The focus should be on the vendor's security, compliance, and operational risks.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) Guidelines - Details best practices for vendor risk assessments.
Basel Principles on Outsourcing and Third-Party Risk - Provides regulatory guidance on evaluating third-party service providers.
質問 # 53
An example of Credit Risk events with an Operational Risk component included?
- A. Ponzi Schemes & Rogue Trading.
- B. Failure in loan approval process leading to erroneously approved loans.
- C. Ponzi Schemes.
- D. Rogue Trading.
正解:A
解説:
Step 1: Understanding Credit Risk with an Operational Risk Component
Credit Risk: Risk of loss due to borrower default.
Operational Risk: Risk of loss due to failed internal processes, fraud, or misconduct.
Step 2: Why Option D is Correct
Ponzi Schemes: Fraudulent investment scams disguise credit risk as legitimate lending but collapse when new funds dry up.
Rogue Trading: Traders take unauthorized risks that can lead to credit defaults or massive financial losses.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Failure in loan approval process") → This is an Operational Risk issue, but does not always create Credit Risk.
Option B ("Ponzi Schemes") → Partially correct, but does not include Rogue Trading, which is also a credit risk-related operational failure.
Option C ("Rogue Trading") → Partially correct, but does not include Ponzi Schemes, which are another key example.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Highlights fraud-based Credit Risk events.
Basel II/III Operational Risk Guidelines - Discusses trading misconduct and credit risk misrepresentation.
Final Conclusion:
Both Ponzi Schemes and Rogue Trading involve credit risk failures caused by operational misconduct, making Option D the correct answer.
質問 # 54
For the Barings case study, what external event may have accelerated the discovery of the loss event?
- A. The Singapore earthquake of January 17th 1995.
- B. The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2002.
- C. The Kobe earthquake of January 17th 1995.
- D. The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy m 2008.
正解:C
解説:
Background of the Barings Case Study
The Barings Bank collapse occurred due to unauthorized derivatives trading by Nick Leeson in Singapore.
Leeson concealed losses, and his trading positions became unmanageable.
How the Kobe Earthquake Affected Barings
On January 17, 1995, the Kobe earthquake caused extreme market volatility.
Leeson's unauthorized trades were highly exposed to the Nikkei 225 index, and the earthquake triggered heavy losses.
The event accelerated the exposure of Leeson's fraudulent activities, leading to Barings' collapse.
Why Answer D is Correct
The Kobe earthquake created market turmoil, forcing Barings to confront its financial position, ultimately revealing the hidden losses.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2002.
Incorrect - Lehman Brothers collapsed in 2008, not 2002.
B . The Singapore earthquake of January 17th, 1995.
Incorrect - No significant earthquake occurred in Singapore on that date.
C . The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2008.
Incorrect - Barings collapsed in 1995, not related to Lehman Brothers' 2008 failure.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Case Study on Barings Bank Collapse
Basel Committee Principles on Risk Oversight and Fraud Prevention
質問 # 55
Team supervisors are key in the development and maintenance of the risk culture because they are:
- A. More experienced than the employees that report to them.
- B. Visible to regulators and can describe the firm's risk culture to their board.
- C. Visible to regulators and can describe the firm's risk culture to inspection teams.
- D. Connected with every employee, every day, and can ensure desired behaviors are followed by all.
正解:D
解説:
Team supervisors play a critical role in shaping and maintaining an organization's risk culture. PRMIA's Risk Governance Framework and Risk Culture Principles emphasize that supervisors act as the link between risk policies and frontline employees, ensuring that risk-aware behaviors are consistently followed.
Step 1: Role of Supervisors in Risk Culture Development
Supervisors engage with employees daily, providing guidance on risk-based decision-making.
They reinforce risk policies, standards, and expectations set by senior management.
Supervisors identify behavioral trends that may indicate risk culture weaknesses.
Step 2: Supervisors as Enforcers of Risk Culture
PRMIA's Risk Culture Framework stresses that risk culture must be embedded into daily operations through supervisor-led enforcement.
Supervisors monitor, correct non-compliant behaviors, and provide ongoing risk awareness training.
Their proximity to employees allows them to detect early warning signs of risk issues.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A: "More experienced than the employees that report to them."
Experience alone does not establish or maintain a risk culture.
A risk culture is about behaviors and practices, not just expertise.
Option B: "Visible to regulators and can describe the firm's risk culture to inspection teams." While supervisors may interact with regulators, their primary role is to engage with employees daily rather than acting as spokespersons.
Option D: "Visible to regulators and can describe the firm's risk culture to their board." Boards typically rely on Chief Risk Officers (CROs) or senior executives to communicate risk culture, not direct supervisors.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Culture Framework - Highlights the role of supervisors in ensuring risk-aware behaviors.
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Stresses that frontline supervisors must enforce risk management policies.
PRMIA Risk Awareness Guidelines - Reinforces daily interaction as a key factor in maintaining a strong risk culture.
Final Conclusion:
Supervisors directly influence employees' behaviors and ensure that risk culture is consistently followed, making Option C the correct answer.
質問 # 56
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